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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 00:20

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why did Democrats echo that Joe Biden was greater than FDR and should be put on Mt Rushmore? Why did Democrats vote for Biden blindly in the primaries and deny he was mentally impaired? Was it the lying media, or are Democrats ignorant and gullible?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Do you think the beginning of movies is often better than the rest of the film? Is this a common opinion or do others share this view?

You'll usually find your answer there.